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<blockquote data-quote="308 nate" data-source="post: 352009" data-attributes="member: 1920"><p>roll-yur-own,</p><p></p><p>Good questions.</p><p></p><p></p><p>Bigbuck, I also have a couple questions..</p><p></p><p>1~ Do you believe it is possible to come to a saving knowledge of our Lord Jesus Christ using a bible other than KJV..such as say an NIV?</p><p></p><p>2~How did you come to the knowledge that the KJV was the only true written word of God? Was is a vision? were you taught it in a church? were you raised that way?</p><p></p><p>3~ Is it possible that you could be wrong about the KJV only-ism?</p><p></p><p>I find it interesting how you will cut others down for adding to the doctrine taught in the bible, yet it is evident you are preaching a doctrine not taught in the bible (KJV only-ism) </p><p></p><p>Earlier you said the NIV teaches that Joseph was the father of Jesus. If you would have done your research and read a little further in the NIV you would have seen it teaches nothing of the sort. Beware of taking short phrases or single words out of context. Joseph was Mary's husband. And although Joseph was not the biological father of Jesus he did father him and raise him as a son. If you are interested in how the NIV came to this translation maybe it would be good for you to research it.</p><p></p><p>The King James was translated from Greek and Hebrew. In the Greek and Hebrew you will find on some words that had a couple of meanings, a side/foot note where the writer added another possible meaning to the word. These were called "qere" Many times, the KJV-translators translated from the "qere" (the marginal note in the Masoretic Text), rather than the "ketiv" (the actual text itself of the Masoretic Text). This is where almost all of the variances are for many of the different translations.</p><p></p><p></p><p>We could go on and on, but I will try not to bore anyone anymore on this. If anyone is interested here is a link to a really good website that explaines the differences on the topic of KJV only-ism. <a href="http://kjv-only.com/index.html" target="_blank">The KJV-only Issue Page</a> </p><p></p><p></p><p>Big buck,</p><p>to answer your question you wrote in an e-mail to me. </p><p>The NIV is the bible I use most. If you are interested in pointing out all the deferences to me,(compared to your KJV) You can save your time, because I am already aware of the differences and prefer to cross reference the text/scripts etc. that the <u>KJV was translated from</u>.</p><p></p><p></p><p></p><p>308nate</p></blockquote><p></p>
[QUOTE="308 nate, post: 352009, member: 1920"] roll-yur-own, Good questions. Bigbuck, I also have a couple questions.. 1~ Do you believe it is possible to come to a saving knowledge of our Lord Jesus Christ using a bible other than KJV..such as say an NIV? 2~How did you come to the knowledge that the KJV was the only true written word of God? Was is a vision? were you taught it in a church? were you raised that way? 3~ Is it possible that you could be wrong about the KJV only-ism? I find it interesting how you will cut others down for adding to the doctrine taught in the bible, yet it is evident you are preaching a doctrine not taught in the bible (KJV only-ism) Earlier you said the NIV teaches that Joseph was the father of Jesus. If you would have done your research and read a little further in the NIV you would have seen it teaches nothing of the sort. Beware of taking short phrases or single words out of context. Joseph was Mary's husband. And although Joseph was not the biological father of Jesus he did father him and raise him as a son. If you are interested in how the NIV came to this translation maybe it would be good for you to research it. The King James was translated from Greek and Hebrew. In the Greek and Hebrew you will find on some words that had a couple of meanings, a side/foot note where the writer added another possible meaning to the word. These were called "qere" Many times, the KJV-translators translated from the "qere" (the marginal note in the Masoretic Text), rather than the "ketiv" (the actual text itself of the Masoretic Text). This is where almost all of the variances are for many of the different translations. We could go on and on, but I will try not to bore anyone anymore on this. If anyone is interested here is a link to a really good website that explaines the differences on the topic of KJV only-ism. [url=http://kjv-only.com/index.html]The KJV-only Issue Page[/url] Big buck, to answer your question you wrote in an e-mail to me. The NIV is the bible I use most. If you are interested in pointing out all the deferences to me,(compared to your KJV) You can save your time, because I am already aware of the differences and prefer to cross reference the text/scripts etc. that the [U]KJV was translated from[/U]. 308nate [/QUOTE]
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